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-ian OR -ese, why?
Sep 3, 2005 10:17
  • RITA
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I know here are a lot of teachers and scholars, would you please explain on the distinguishing expressions on nationalities? The parlance I heard was that -ian means a more powerful country behind it in history and -ese the opposite? Is that true?


Sep 3, 2005 10:33
#1  
  • JABAROOTOO
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Can you give a couple of example of the words ?????
Sep 3, 2005 10:38
#2  
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Like
-ian or -an
American
Canadian
Australian
etc
...

-ese
Chinese
Japanese
Viet Namese
Burmese
etc
...

Ok, I am curious about how the difference came out firstly to express the nationalities?
Thank you!

Sep 3, 2005 11:44
#3  
  • DOUTIN
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To: RITA
How about Albanian? :))
Sep 4, 2005 01:27
#4  
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Hi Doutin,
I know it is not absolute, and I think the kind of expressions were used very long time ago, the world has been forever changing, especially going through the two world wars, the situation of the present day world has changed drastically. I am not quite sure about the history of Albania, (I AM trying to catch some now :)). What I am curious is how the differences came out.
Maybe according to the continent?
Sep 4, 2005 05:45
#5  
  • JABAROOTOO
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No political or historic implications here. Just smply changing the noun to adjective.

Germany to German
France to French
Spain to Spanish

No hard and fast grammar rules but countries ending in 'ia' will become 'ian
Albania, Arabia, Austrailia, Argentina

But you've then got
England to English
Spain to Spanish
Turkey to Turkish

China to Chinese
America to American
Africa To African
Peru to Peruvian
Tibet to Tibetan
Greece to Greek

Seems to me the best pronounciation and smooth expression dictates the suffix or variation in spelling.

Sep 4, 2005 05:50
#6  
  • JABAROOTOO
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Excuse the mistake with ArgentinA like America, it changes to Argentinian
Sep 4, 2005 19:29
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Thank you, Jabarootoo, for your explanation.
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